世事萬物皆項目

1. Communications is best described as:
A. an exchange of information.
B. providing written or oral directions.
C. consists of senders and receivers
D. effective listening.
E. All of the above
ANS: E

2. Fixed Price contracts place more risk on the:
A. owner
B. buyer
C. seller
D. contractor
E. C or D
ANS: E

3. Life cycle costing is the total cost to the customer for the acquisition and ownership over its full life. Life cycle costing categories include the cost
of _____, _____, and _____.
A. R & D, maintainability, operation and support.
B. R & D, production, operation and support.
C. Acquisition, operations, maintenance.
D. Production, operations, maintenance.
E. None of the above
ANS: B

4. Management By Objectives assumes that the team:
A. is receptive to an unstructured environment.
B. does not require close supervision.
C. possesses a self directed philosophy
D. identifies with project objectives.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

5. Quality may be defined as:
A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. continuous improvement of products and services
D. appeal to the customer
E. All of the above except B
ANS: E

6. Since risk is associated with most projects, the best course of action is to:
A. cover all project risks by buying appropriate insurance
B. ignore the risks, since nothing can be done about them and move forward with the project in an expeditious manner.
C. avoid projects with clear and present risks
D. eliminate all known risks prior to the execution phase of the project
E. identify various risks and implement actions to mitigate their potential impact
ANS: E

7. The process of choosing/documenting the best approach to achieve the project objectives is part of:
A. The scope baseline.
B. Scope authorization
C. Scope definition
D. Scope planning.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

8. Time management is the allocation of time in a project’s life cycle through the process of:
A. Planning
B. Estimating.
C. Scheduling.
D. Controlling
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

9. A comprehensive definition of scope management would be:
A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development, implementation, and termination phases of a project.
B. Approval of the scope baseline.
C. Approval of the detailed project charter.
D. Configuration control.
E. Approved detailed planning including budgets, resource allocation, linear responsibility charts and management sponsorship.
ANS: A

10. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost contracts are more desirable for the:
A. owner
B. buyer
C. seller
D. contractor
E. C or D
ANS: E

11. Management styles associated with production environments, such as assembly lines commonly include:
A. a directing style of leadership.
B. a lack of confidence in their workers
C. assumption that workers lack ambition and dislike responsibility
D. a Theory X style of leadership
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

12. Quality management:
A. is another name for careful inspections.
B. is inversely related to productivity.
C. is primarily the responsiblity of management.
D. is primarily the responsibility of the workers.
E. is essentially a motivational technique.
ANS: C

13. Risk management allows the project manager and the project team to:
A. eliminate most risks during the planning phase of the project
B. identify project risks
C. identify impacts of various risks
D. plan suitable responses
E. B, C and D only
ANS: E

14. Scheduling is the process by which decisions are made concerning:
A. Tasks to be accomplished.
B. Personnel/organization that will be assigned to accomplish the task.
C. Time when the tasks are to be completed.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: E

15. The basic elements of communication include:
A. Listening, talking and sign language.
B. Communicator, encoding, message, medium, decoding, receiver, and feedback
C. Clarity of speech and good listening habits
D. Reading, writing and listening
E. All of the above
ANS: B

16. Which of the following would most likely increase the accuracy of estimating the project cost?
A. Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure.
B. Using historical data.
C. Talking to people who have worked on similar projects.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: D

17. A variance envelope has been established on a project. The envelope goes from +-30% in R&D to +-5% during manufacturing. The reason for
the change in thickness of the envelope is because:
A. The management reserve has been used up.
B. The accuracy of the estimates in manufacturing are worse than the estimates in R & D.
C. Tighter controls are always needed as a project begins to wind down.
D. Of the personal desires of the project sponsor.
E. Of none of the above
ANS: E

18. Cost of quality is:
A. associated with non-conformance to specifications and requirements.
B. primarily caused by poor workmanship of workers who are building or manufacturing the product.
C. used to determine whether a quality management program is suitable for a given project.
D. negligible for most large projects.
E. A and B
ANS: A

19. Management plans include all of the following except:
A. Organization of project.
B. Job deｓcriptions.
C. Policies and procedures.
D. Linear responsibility charts.
E. Scope baseline.
ANS: E

20. The Japanese resource management model exhibits:
A. a cooperative spirit of goal setting.
B. non-specialized career paths
C. frequent changes in team assignments
D. a Theory Z style of management
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

21. The highest degrees of project risk and uncertainty are associated with the following phase of the project:
A. conceptual
B. execution
C. cut-over
D. post project evaluation
E. A and D only
ANS: A

22. The most common types of schedules are Gantt charts, milestone charts, line of balance, and:
A. Networks.
B. Time phased events.
C. Calendar integrated activities.
D. A and C only.
E. B and C only.
ANS: A

23. Which of the following is often overlooked in achieving effective communication?
A. speaking clearly
B. listening
C. interpreting
D. maintaining eye contact
E. manipulating the conversation
ANS: B

24. Which type of contract requires that the buyer keep the tightest labor/material cost control?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs
C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
D. Firm Fixed Price
E. Firm Fixed Price Plus Incentive
ANS: B

25. A task-oriented family tree of activities is a:
A. Detailed plan.
B. Linear responsibility chart.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Cost account coding system.
E. Work package deｓcription.
ANS: C

26. Adding 5 people to a 4 person team increases the communication channels by a factor of:
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 5 times
E. 6 times
ANS: E

27. Cost management includes:
A. Cost estimating/forecasting.
B. Cost budgeting/cost control.
C. Cost applications.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
ANS: D

28. Participative Management:
A. involves the solicitation of information from all team members.
B. assumes that members avoid work and responsibility.
C. suggests the sharing of power and decision making.
D. employs a Theory X style of leadership.
E. A and C
ANS: E

29. The auditing function that provides feedback about the quality of output is referred to as:
A. quality control.
B. quality planning.
C. quality assurance.
D. quality improvement
E. All of the above.
ANS: C

30. The lowest dollar amount ‘at stake’ is associated with the following phase of the project:
A. conceptual
B. execution
C. cut-over
D. post project evaluation
E. A and D only
ANS: A

31. The major disadvantage of a bar chart is:
A. Lack of time-phasing.
B. Cannot be related to calendar dates.
C. does not show activity interrelationships.
D. Cannot be related to manpower planning.
E. Cannot be related to cost estimates.
ANS: C

32. Which contract type consists of – target costs & profit, ceiling prices and shared ratio of risk?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs
C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
D. Firm Fixed Price
E. Firm Fixed Price Plus Incentive
ANS: E

33. Methods and techniques used to examine cost and technical data are called feasibility studies. The economic aspects of a feasibility study
include interest rates, present worth factors, operating costs, depreciation and _____.
A. Capitalization costs.
B. Technical skill requirements.
C. Technology forecasting.
D. Strategic marketing intelligence.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

34. Standard of purchased material:
A. Simplifies inventory control
B. reduces the risk of obsolescence
C. reduces cost of purchasing and storage
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: E

35. The “control points” in the work breakdown structure used for isolated assignments to work centers are referred to as:
A. Work packages.
B. Subtasks.
C. Tasks.
D. Code of accounts.
E. Integration points.
ANS: C

36. The utility of network-based schedules:
A. Reveals interdependencies.
B. Facilitates “what if” exercises.
C. Highlights critical activities.
D. Provides information on resource requirements, time requirements and tradeoffs.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

37. The way a project manager sends and receives information depends upon:
A. How others relate to the project manager
B. The project manager’s level in the organizational hierarchy
C. the size and nature of the project
D. the project manager’s salary and age
E. the number of projects going on at one time in the company
ANS: A

38. Uncertainty refers to a situation where:
A. the outcomes are known but their probabilities are high
B. the outcomes and their probabilities are known
C. neither the outcomes nor their probabilities are known
D. states of nature can change at any time
E. probabilities of various states of nature can change at any time
ANS: C

39. Which of the following is closet to Deming’s definition of Quality:
A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. continuous improvement of products and services.
D. customer focus.
E. All of the above.
ANS: C

40. It is useful to conduct project risk assessment according to the project’s
A. charter
B. statement of work
C. Work Breakdown structure
D. network
E. budget
ANS: C

1. While working on an external project your customer asks you to perform some additional tasks that are not included in the formal contract. You should:
Honor the customer’s request as sign of cooperation to ensure future business.
Refuse the request and report the customer to your sponsor
Acknowledge the request and advise the customer to submit a formal change request
Convene a meeting of the project team and rewrite the scope statement.

2. You are managing an internal R&D project. The initial test results are very poor. You are afraid your management might cancel the project, and this could reflect poorly upon you. Verification testing could be done quickly and inexpensively. You should:
Be the first to recommend canceling the project
Inform management about the results and wait for a response
Inform management immediately and recommend retesting for verification
Withhold the information from management until you perform additional tests to verify the initial results

3. During an informal meeting with your project client you are offered a substantial monetary incentive to alter the configuration of the product to meet the client’s personal need. This change may result in additional project costs and schedule delays. The appropriate action to take would be :
Refrain from accepting the offer and advise the customer to submit a request to the change control board.
Accept the offer and issue an internal configuration change request to the design group
Obtain additional information about the request and the customer’s personal need before accepting the offer.
Delay acceptance of the offer until you can ensure that you can protect yourself from any legal liabilities.

4. As the project manager for a very large and highly visible project you receive a preliminary press release for your approval before distribution. You are expected to approve the release without comment. Your review identifies a major discrepancy regarding some key project financial estimates that may mislead the intended recipients. As the project manager it is your responsibility to:
Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release
Approve the release but send a memo to the sponsor advising that you are aware of the discrepancy and will refer any questions your receive to the sponsor
Completely rewrite the press release and include the correct information
Approve the release as requested
Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project’s charge numbers while working on your project. You should:
Follow instructions
Inform the corporate auditors
Understand the background of management’s instructions before taking any action
Shut down the project, if possible

6. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should:
Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project
Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.
Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve.
Question each functional manager for information about this estimate
You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be:
Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts.
Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential
Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal or public relations group for assistance.
Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

8. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non compete clause in the new hire’s condition of employment. You should:
Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.
Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project’s financial status.
Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

9. You are asked to write a paper for your sponsor so that he/she can present it at a technical meeting. You are informed that his/her name will be the only name on the paper. You should:
Follow instructions
Follow instructions but demand that your name also appears
Refuse to follow the instructions
Go over the head of your sponsor seeking advice
An example of a conflict of interest would be:
As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally
You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate
Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy
Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.

11. Each of the following describes the use of an ethical approach except:
Attempting to understand the religious and cultural sensitivities of the country in which you have been assigned.
Ensuring that personal interest does not interfere with your decision making process.
Accepting gifts in exchange for favoring one contractor over another
Maintaining confidentiality of sensitive information obtained during the project life cycle.

12. To maintain the customer’s schedule, massive overtime will be required between Christmas and New Years. Many of your team members have put in for vacation during this time. You should:
Let the schedule slip and inform the customer
First give the employees the choice of working overtime
Make the employees cancel their vacation plans and work overtime
Hire temporary employees for the overtime

13. Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP?Professional Code of Conduct?
Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in.
Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision.
Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management services are provided
Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of impropriety.

14. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be:
Compromise
Forcing
Controlling
Confrontation

15. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After contract award, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says that the customer’s test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. Suppose your sponsor is also the vice president for engineering. You should:
Use the customer’s test matrix
Use the engineering test matrix without telling the customer
Use the engineering test matrix and inform the customer
Tell your sponsor that you want to set up a meeting with the customer to resolve the conflict

16. In order for the project manager to fully and effectively understand a stake holder’s personal concerns or grievances it may be necessary to:
Ask for a written description of the problem and submit it through the project office
Schedule a project review session with the entire project team
Attempt to empathize with the stakeholder
Involve the project sponsor as an arbitrator
As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should:
Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas
Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination.

18. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should:
Do nothing; it’s not your problem
Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated
Talk to the corporate legal department
Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

19. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:
Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information
Identify only those stakeholders that have the same background experience as the project manager
Filter the information to remove any details
Restrict information to specific technical details

20. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to:
Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects
Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information
Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

21. One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your project. You can delay the promotion until your project is completed. You should:
Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee’s new management to develop a good transition plan
Ask the employee to refuse the promotion until your project is completed.
Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed
Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement so that the project will not suffer.

22. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations the project manager’s most appropriate response would be:
Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost.
Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work
Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.

23. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client’s conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken
Disregard the customer’s conclusion and continue to process invoices
Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address interpretations and disputes
Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor
Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer
Your executives, in appreciation for the success of your project, have given you a ,000 bonus to be disbursed among your five-team members. One of the five, who is a substandard worker and accomplished very little on your project, is in your car pool. You should:
Provide everyone with an equal share
Provide everyone a share based upon their performance
Ask the workers to decide among themselves how the bonus should be subdivided
Ask the sponsor to make the decision

25. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should
Determine the risks associated with the violation
Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response

26. Project Managers can contribute to their organization’s knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by:
Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
Promoting the use of ad hoc project management
Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
You have been assigned two concurrent projects. Because of the nature of the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should:
Do the best you can and tell no one
Ask to be removed from one of the projects
Ask to be removed from both of the projects
Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice

28. An effective method for improving an organization’s project management knowledge base is through:
Coaching and mentoring
Referent power
A weak Matrix organizational structure
Fast Tracking

29. You are managing an international project with locations in several countries that you have had limited experience with. As you begin planning for the project you should:
Follow your own previously established planning methodology
Identify differences in how each country conducts business
Disregard political and cultural issues
Establish project monitoring and control procedures and standards before staffing the project.

Answer Key
1=c
2=d
3=a
4=a
5=c
6=b
7=c
8=b
9=b
10=a
11=c
12=b
13=b
14=d
15=d
16=c
17=b
18=b
19=a
20=a
21=a
22=a            
23=b            
24=c  
25=b           
26=a           
27=d           
28=a  
29=b            

1. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area
A. Communications Management
B. Procurement Management
C. Change Control Management
D. Project Integration Management

C

2. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service.
A. unique, temporary
B. significant, necessary
C. organized, profitable
D. temporary, unique

D

3. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include
A. Budgetary considerations
B. Internationalization
C. Activity based costing
D. Matrix organization

B

4. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage?
A. Initial phase(s)
B. Intermediate phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
D. Staffing phase(s)

B

5. Which is not a facilitating process?
A. Solicitation planning
B. Quality planning
C. Communications planning
D. Resource planning

D

6. Core processes:
A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the project
B. Have clear dependencies
C. Must be preformed simultaneously
D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project
B

7. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control
A. Organizational procedures
B. Performance reports
C. Project plan updates
D. Performance measurement

D

8. The project plan:
A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope change
B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones
C. Is used to manage project execution
D. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

C

9. Change control requests:
A. Must be relayed in writing
B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled
C. Are always initiated externally
D. Are inputs to integrated change control

D

10. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time.
A. Work-authorization system
B. Organizational procedures
C. Status review
D. Project planning

A

11. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?
A. PM Information system
B. Change control system
C. Organizational procedures
D. General management skills

B

12. Which scope management process creates the WBS?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope definition
D. Scope verification

C

13. Project Scope Management is:
A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully
B. The features to be included in a product or service
C. Is synonymous with change control management
D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders

A

14. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process
C
A. Project charter
B. Constraints
C. Alternatives identification
D. Assignment of the PM

C

15. The lowest level of the WBS is:
A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable

C

16. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Change Control
D. Scope verification

D

17. An activity has a optimistic duration estimate of 2 days, a mostly likely estimate of 5 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 8 days. What is the weighted average duration?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 5.2
D. 6

B

18. Which method does not use boxes or nodes to represent work or activities?
A. PERT
B. PDM
C. ADM
D. GERT

C

661. Using the table in the Special window, Which task is completed?
A. dig hole
B. remove debris
C. survey
D. set forms
E. place concrete
ANS: B

662. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the cost performance index for Case #9?
A. 1.10
B. 1.91
C. 0.83
D. 1.20
E. None of the above
ANS: A

663. Using the WBS shown in the Special window, a typical work package would be:
A. Software development
B. Systems design
C. Coding
D. A, B, and C
E. None of the above.
ANS: E

664. Which of the statements regarding benefit-cost analysis in the Special window are true?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above.
ANS: C

665. Using the cumulative cost curve in the special window, height B represents
A. actual cost to date
B. total budgeted costs for the project
C. planned cost for month 6
D. cost variance
E. earned value
ANS: B

666. Using the situation stated in the Special window, a comparison of the cost variance of August as compared to July shows that the magnitude
($ value) of the variance has _____ and the percentage change has _____.
A. Become worse, become worse
B. Become worse, improved
C. Improved, increased
D. Improved, become worse
E. None of the above are correct
ANS: B

667. Using the situation shown in the Special window and assuming continues efficiency for work-in-progress and fixed price contract for task four.
The estimate at completion is:
A. K
B. K
C. K
D. K
E. indeterminate
ANS: C

668. Using the scenario in the special window, the project manager appears to be a _____ manager.
A. 1, 9
B. 9, 1
C. 1, 1
D. 9, 9
E. 5, 5
ANS: E

669. Using the scenario in the special window, the project manager:
A. will probably spend the weekend reviewing the data.
B. Won’t ask for the report again.
C. Has a preference for written communication.
D. Has chosen an inappropriate medium.
E. Is experiencing communication overload.
ANS: E

670. In which of the following scope management processes are subject matter experts used?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Definition
D. Scope change control
E. Scope verification
ANS: A

671. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is first developed in which scope management process?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope change control
D. Scope Definition
E. Scope verification
ANS: D

672. The project charter is prepared in which scope management process?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Definition
D. Scope change control
E. Scope verification
ANS: A

673. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Definition
D. Scope change control
E. Scope verification
ANS: B

674. Which of the following is not a scope management process?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Definition
D. Scope change control
E. Scope verification
ANS: D

675. The initial document that formally recognizes the existence of a project is the _____ .
A. Scope baseline
B. Management plan
C. Project charter
D. Configuration control report
E. None of the above
ANS: C

676. Which of the following are included as part of a scope statement?
A. Project justification
B. Project deliverables
C. Project objectives
D. All of the above
E. B and C
ANS: D

677. Project life cycles are very useful for _____ and _____ .
A. Configuration management, termination
B. Objective setting, information gathering
C. Standardization, control
D. Configuration management, weekly status updates
E. Approval, termination
ANS: C

678. Work packages are used to:
A. Represent units of work at a level where work is performed.
B. Clearly distinguish one work package from all others assigned to a single functional group.
C. Limit the work to be performed to relatively short periods of time.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: D

679. “Hard logic” in the preparation of a network refers to:
A. Discretionay dependencies
B. External depenencies
C. Mandatory dependencies
D. All of the above
E. A abd B only
ANS: C

680. The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an example of a _____ dependency.
A. Discretionary
B. Mandatory
C. External
D. Soft logic
E. Subcontracted
ANS: B

681. Sources for data on activity durations and resource requirements can be gathered from which of the following:
A. Past project records (historical data)
B. Commercial techniques (standard practices, rules of thumb)
C. Past project team members knowledge (experience, oldtimers)
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
ANS: D

682. Which of the following can affect network durations?
A. Skills of the resource pool
B. Calendar dates
C. Constraints
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
ANS: E

683. A completion of a local government study resides on your critical path. This would most likely be referred to as:
A. Soft logic
B. Hard logic
C. An external dependency
D. A mandatory dependency
E. A lost cause
ANS: C

641. Using the figure in the Special window, By how many weeks can activity “F” slip without extending the end date of the project?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
ANS: D

642. Using the data shown in the Special window, Activities P, Q, and T are critical path activities. In order to shorten the time duration of the
project, which activity should be “crashed” first?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
E. T
ANS: A

643. Using the possible profit and loss outcomes shown in the Special window, find the expected profit (loss)
A. (00)
B. 00
C. 00
D. 00
E. None of the above
ANS: D

644. Using the figure in the Special window, The Critical path is _____ weeks.
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
E. 25
ANS: D

645. Using the possible loss outcomes shown in the Special window, find the expected (loss)
A. %content%
B. (00)
C. (00)
D. ($ 3000)
E. None of the above
ANS: B

646. Using the diagram in the Special window, what is the probability that Alternative I will be adopted and completed below budget:
A. 1.4
B. 0.8
C. 0.2
D. 0.12
E. None of the above
ANS: D

647. Using the figure in the Special window, Activity “L” has an early start time of _____ weeks and an early finish time of _____ weeks.
A. 11, 13
B. 12, 14
C. 13, 15
D. 14, 16
E. 15, 17
ANS: E

648. Using the figure in the Special Window, what is the probability of success for Project B?
A. 0.30
B. 0.20
C. 0.35
D. 0.15
E. 0.12
ANS: C

649. Using the figure in the Special window, Activity “D” has a latest start time of _____ weeks and a latest finish time of _____ weeks.
A. 2, 10
B. 4, 12
C. 6, 14
D. 7, 15
E. 9, 17
ANS: A

650. Using the figure in the Special window, The slacktime in Activity “G” is _____ weeks.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 7
ANS: C

651. Using the WBS in the Special window, an instance of a work package is:
A. Build house
B. Excavate
C. Prepare Foundation
D. B and C
E. None of the above
ANS: E

652. Using the problem stated in the Special window, Calculate the expected value of duration (in days) using the PERT concept of the expected
duration of a task
A. 8.0
B. 8.8
C. 9.1
D. 9.7
E. 10.5
ANS: B

653. Using the problem stated in the Special window, Calculate the deviation of duration for the task, using the PERT concept of standard
deviation of task duration.
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 1.8
D. 2.2
E. 2.8
ANS: C

654. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the total variable costs for producing one widget?
A. ,020
B. ,010
C. ,015
D. .00
E. None of the above.
ANS: E

655. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the total price variance for direct material?
A. 0.00
B. 6.00
C. %content%.02
D. -0.00
E. 50.00
ANS: B

656. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the labor rate cost variance?
A. 00.00
B. 00.00
C. -0.00
D. -%content%.10
E. 00.00
ANS: D

657. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is net present value of an annual income flow of 00 at 14% over the next three
years?
A. 13.60
B. %content%.68
C. 80.00
D. 6.19
E. .32
ANS: A

658. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is present value of 00 at 12% at the end of 5 years?
A. 05.00
B. %content%.57
C. 7.00
D. 2.86
E. .61
ANS: C

659. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the cost variance for Case #9?
A. -00
B. 1000
C. -2000
D. 2000
E. 0
ANS: B

660. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the schedule variance for Case #8?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. -1000
D. -2000
E. 0
ANS: C

621. The LEAST effective form of communication for complex situations is:
A. verbal – face to face
B. written
C. formal
D. informal
E. A and C
ANS: E

622. The most common form of organizational communication is
A. Upward to management
B. Downward to subordinates
C. Horizontal to peers
D. Horizontal to customers
E. All of the above
ANS: E

623. The most common form of project communication is:
A. Upward to executive sponsor
B. Downward to subordinates
C. Lateral to the team and line organizations
D. Lateral to customers
E. Diagonally to the client’s senior management
ANS: C

624. The primary source document for establishing the content of the Project Status Report is:
A. The project charter
B. The Project Plan
C. The ASTM Project Document Guide
D. The summary work breakdown structure
E.
ANS: B

625. A Project Status Report would include all of the following except:
A. Cost and schedule reports
B. Changes to scope. cost or schedule
C. Narrative explanation of variances
D. Personnel problems on the project
E. Upcoming activities
ANS: D

626. A negative cost variance and positive schedule variance means:
A. The project is under budget and ahead of schedule
B. The project is over budget and behind schedule
C. The project is over budget and ahead of schedule
D. The project will be overrun but ahead of schedule at completion
E.
ANS: C

627. The following reports are normally developed during the project closure phase?
A. Communications Management Plan and Lessons Learned
B. Records Archive, Closure Report, lessons learned & Formal Acceptance Report
C. Records Archive, Closure Report, & Specifications Document
D. Communications Management Plan and Closure report
E. None of the above
ANS: B

628. Which of the following tools and techniques can be used to collect information for the project closure reports?
A. Customer Surveys
B. Brainstorming
C. Document and Performance Analysis
D. Lessons Learned
E. All of the above
ANS: E

629. A project manager who, in a deference of opinion with the project controls engineer on how costs are to be reported, dictates the format of
the cost report may be said to have a conflict management style.
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Confrontational
D. Authoritarian
E. Combative
ANS: B

630. Using the situation the the Special window:
A. Productivity will increase
B. His decisions will promote high satisfaction among his team
C. His decisions will require less time
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
ANS: B

631. Using the situation stated in the Special window, which WBS element is behind schedule but under budget?
A. Element P
B. Element Q
C. Element R
D. Element S
E. None of the above.
ANS: D

632. Using the situation stated in the Special window, which WBS element has a favorable cost variance of 0?
A. Element P
B. Element Q
C. Element R
D. Element S
E. None of the above.
ANS: C

633. Using the situation stated in the Special window, the cost performance index (CPI) for WBS Element R is:
A. 0.875
B. 1.14
C. 0.952
D. 0.833
E. 1.20
ANS: B

634. Using the situation stated in the Special window, the schedule performance index (SPI) for WBS Element P is:
A. 1.10
B. 0.90
C. 0.956
D. 1.15
E. 0.869
ANS: A

635. Using the situation stated in the Special window, WBS Element Q is _____ budget by _____ percent.
A. Over, 16.66
B. Under, 16.66
C. Over, 10.0
D. Under, 10.0
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

636. Using the situation stated in the Special window, a comparison of the cost schedule of August as compared to July shows that the magnitude
($ value) of the variance has _____ and the percentage change has _____.
A. Become worse, become worse
B. Become worse, improved
C. Improved, increased
D. Improved, become worse
E. None of the above are correct
ANS: E

637. Using the situation stated in the Special window, the total price variance of direct material is:
A. ,245
B. -36
C. -79
D. %content%.69
E. ,994
ANS: C

638. Using the situation stated in the Special window, the labor rate cost variance is:
A. ,927
B. ,329
C. 6
D. -%content%.22
E. .36
ANS: D

639. Using the situation stated in the Special window, what is the total fixed costs for manufacturing the widgets?
A. ,000
B. ,000
C. ,270
D. ,335
E. ,000
ANS: E

640. Using the figure in the Special window, The critical path is:
A. A-B-G
B. C-G
C. C-D
D. E-F
E. A-B-G and C-D
ANS: B

601. Most project management leadership theories focus on all of the following except:
A. Personal characteristics of the project manager
B. The situation at hand
C. Personal traits of the subordinates
D. Behavioral styles of the project manager
E. Usefulness of authority and power in leadership
ANS: C

602. Project trade-offs vary between
A. risk, cost and schedule.
B. direct cost, indirect cost, and resource availability
C. quality, schedule and time
D. cost, quality and schedule
E. contract terms, scope and budget
ANS: D

603. The following individuals are responsible for determining the content of the Communications Management Plan.
A. Project Sponsor
B. Task Manager(s)
C. Director of Communications
D. Project Manager
E.
ANS: D

604. When comparing the cost of competing projects, which of the following is typically NOT considered?
A. Opportunity costs.
B. Direct costs.
C. Sunk costs.
D. Indirect costs.
E. Burden rates.
ANS: C

605. Input into the Communications Management Plan includes the following information from the stakeholder analysis:
A. Information needs
B. Information content
C. Frequency of distribution
D. Method of distribution
E. All of the above
ANS: E

606. The computation for Cost Performance Index is:
A. BCWP/ACWP
B. BCWP-ACWP
C. BCWP-BCWS
D. ACWP/BCWP
E. ACWP-BCWS
ANS: A

607. We assign human and non-human resources in the _____ phase of the budget.
A. conceptual
B. planning
C. development
D. implementation
E. close-out
ANS: D

608. Which of the following can the project manager use as a means of measuring project team effectiveness?
A. Absenteeism
B. Sponsor-approved salary increases
C. Efficiency of the team
D. Turnover of personnel
E. Grievances
ANS: C

609. Project alternatives are examined during the _____ phase of the project
A. conceptual
B. finish
C. development
D. implementation
E. A and C
ANS: E

610. Project leadership requires that the project manager pay attention simultaneously to the:
A. Tasks to be performed and needs of the team
B. Quantity and quality of the work to be performed
C. Efficiency and effectiveness of the team
D. Time, cost and performance deliverables
E. All of the above
ANS: E

611. A project manager believes that the best way to manage is to form a good, harmonious working relationship with the team, and high
performance will follow. The project manager could be defined as a _____ manager.
A. 1,9
B. 9,1
C. 1,1
D. 9,9
E. 5,5
ANS: A

612. Which of the following are included in the Acquisition phase(s) of the project life cycle.
A. concept and development
B. development and planning
C. execution and phase-out
D. planning and implementation
E. concept and planning
ANS: C

613. Budgetary estimates are the output of the _____ phase(s) of the project.
A. conceptual
B. development
C. implementation
D. finish
E. All of the above.
ANS: B

614. The capacity to get an individual or group to perform a given task is described as:
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Influence
D. Leadership
E. Motivation
ANS: E

615. A team that is just forming needs:
A. An organization chart
B. Alternatives and choices
C. Structure and specificity
D. Orientation and organization
E. Opportunities for dialogue and conflict resolution
ANS: C

616. A work breakdown structure:
A. assures all work is identified.
B. subdivides the project into manageable segments.
C. provides the project sponsor with a time-phase task summary.
D. both A and B.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

617. For effective communication, the message should be oriented to the _____.
A. Initiator
B. Receiver
C. Media
D. Management style
E. Corporate culture
ANS: B

618. The scope statement provides
A. A basis for future decisions about a project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
ANS: D

619. A Work Berakdown Structure is most useful for:
A. Identifying individual tasks for a project.
B. Scheduling the start of tasks.
C. Developing a cost estimate.
D. Determining potential delays.
E. A and C.
ANS: E

620. Communication plays a major role in:
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Controlling
D. Directing
E. All of the above
ANS: E

581. One of the most common pitfalls in effective communication is:
A. not selecting the correct medium
B. nor considering the position of the receiver
C. assuming that because a message is sent, it has been received
D. All of the above.
E. A and B
ANS: C

582. The core function of the PM is
A. client interfacing
B. project integration
C. quality assurance
D. personal administration
E. All of the above.
ANS: B

583. Value engineering/Analysis is the systematic use of techniques which does not include _____.
A. establishing values for required functions
B. provide the required functions at the lowest overall cost.
C. identifies the required function of an item
D. seeks to trade performance for cost
E. None of the above.
ANS: D

584. You have been assigned as a project leader and must first review the statement of work provided by the customer. Which of the following is
most often overlooked?
A. Data item deliverables
B. Customer-furnished equipment and facilities
C. Long-lead procurement items
D. Customer-imposed milestones
E. Other subcontractor interface requirements
ANS: A

585. Project team building is most difficult in which type of environment?
A. weak matrix organization
B. strong matrix organization
C. projectized organization
D. functional organization
E. expediter organization
ANS: A

586. The role of the _____ can be invaluable in problem solving.
A. recognition seeker
B. devils advocate
C. dominator
D. topic jumper
E. A or C
ANS: B

587. Which of the following are types of status reports?
A. document, variance, trend and exception
B. cost, trend, schedule and acquisition
C. cost, schedule, technical performance
D. analysis, cost, performance and schedule
E. All of the above.
ANS: C

588. Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.
A. analyze the reasons for variances
B. establish the variances
C. identify the problems
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
ANS: D

589. Using “I” or “My’ instead of “most people” or “our group” ______ message credibility.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. has no effect on
D. distorts
E. A and B
ANS: B

590. Which of the following can be tracked using the WBS?
A. time
B. cost
C. performance
D. scope
E. None of the above.
ANS: D

591. Cost and schedule data are usually integrated because:
A. optimized project cash flow can affect financial requirements
B. they provide MIS with an integrated system to produce reports
C. they control escalation allowances
D. they account for omissions in the definitive estimate
E. they predict future performance
ANS: E

592. In which of the following organization(s) does the Functional Manager have the LEAST authority?
A. coordinator
B. weak matrix
C. strong matrix
D. functional
E. expediter
ANS: C

593. When a project incorporates an Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS), it is integrated with the WBS at the
A. task
B. level of effort
C. sub-task
D. project
E. work package
ANS: E

594. An effective Project Manager does not share project _____ with the team members.
A. Vision
B. responsibility
C. solution to problems
D. accountability
E. status
ANS: D

595. Parametric estimates are based on variables such as:
A. Detailed planning and cost restraints.
B. Physical characteristics and historical data.
C. The WBS and similar projects.
D. Project objectives and manpower allocations.
E. Precise measurements and multiple inputs.
ANS: B

596. The time necessary to complete a project is called the _______ of a project.
A. Implementation Time
B. Life Cycle
C. Operation Time
D. Critical Path
E. Completion Phase
ANS: B
597. The Communications Management Plan should contain the following:
A. Communications policy
B. Communications media
C. Reporting channels
D. Selection of appropriate media to meet specific needs
E. All of the above
ANS: E

598. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) measures:
A. cost of work performed vs planned costs.
B. work performed vs cost of work performed.
C. work performed vs planned work.
D. direct costs vs indirect costs.
E. floating costs vs. sunk costs.
ANS: B

599. The extent of project management techniques to be used on a project are determined mainly by the _____ and _____ of the project.
A. budget, schedule
B. quality requirements, schedule
C. size, type of industry
D. nature, size
E. project manager, sponsor
ANS: D

600. Which theory(s) prescribes a form of participative management?
A. theory X
B. theory Y
C. theory Z
D. A or B
E. B or C
ANS: B

561. The appointment or selection of a project sponsor is often based upon:
A. The strategic importance of the project
B. Who the customer is
C. Whether the organization is project or non-project-driven
D. The profitability of the project
E. All of the above
ANS: E

562. The strong matrix versus a weak matrix.
A. team members are more likely to be assigned to the project office in a strong matrix
B. strong matrix is more difficult to manage.
C. the balance of power has shifted away from the PM.
D. functional managers no longer has control over the technical processes.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

563. When all members must unanimously agree before a decision is reached
A. all members become committed
B. decisions are reached slowly
C. integrity is developed
D. future decision making ability is enhanced
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

564. A team may not be fully functional until each member
A. seeks consensus in decision making
B. feels personal acceptance
C. depends on the team leader for direction
D. A and B.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

565. Quality management deals with all of the following except:
A. conformance to requirements/specifications
B. satisfying the needs of the customer
C. making products more desirable and luxurious
D. A and C.
E. B and C
ANS: C

566. The difference between a project and a program is that:
A. A program is made up of multiple projects
B. A program requires at least three times longer to plan than a project
C. A project is a one-shot deal while a program is on-going
D. A and C
E. B and C
ANS: D

567. The functional organization is effective with a mature product or single product line.
A. true
B. false
C.
D.
E.
ANS: A

568. The most common non-behavioral reason for projects being completed behind schedule and over budget is:
A. Selecting the wrong person as the project manager
B. Selecting the wrong person as the sponsor
C. Accepting a high-risk project
D. Ill-defined requirements
E. All of the above
ANS: D

569. You have summarized the project and note that 28000 hours have been scheduled, 25000 hours have been earned and 26000 hours paid.
The correct conclusion is:
A. The project is operating at a favorable cost efficiency ratio.
B. the project is spending more than planned
C. the project is behind schedule
D. the project is ahead of schedule
E. B and C
ANS: C

570. Considering alternate suppliers is a form of _____.
A. Value engineering.
B. Risk Analysis
C. Contract Management
D. Project integration
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

571. The scope of a project can be expected to change if:
A. The project manager must provide cost estimates without having a design concept
B. Oversimplification (underestimating) of the nature of the work occurs
C. The project manager is assigned after the project is defined, and the cost and schedule are approved
D. A clear objective is not provided
E. All of the above are possible based upon the situation
ANS: E

572. Which of the following organizations has the best technical project control?
A. matrix
B. functional
C. projectized
D. B and C
E. A and B
ANS: D

573. Clearly defined group goals are important because they _____.
A. motivate team behavior
B. cause inner tension within team members until they are met
C. encourage member interaction
D. All of the above.
E. A and C
ANS: D

574. The estimated cost to complete (ETC) is _____.
A. BCWP/ACWP
B. the forecasted and final cost – cost to date
C. (ACWP-BCWP)/BCWP * 100
D. Total estimate – ACWP
E. None of the above.
ANS: B

575. The most common definition of project success is:
A. Within time
B. Within time and cost
C. Within time, cost and technical performance requirements
D. Within time, cost, performance and accepted by the customer/user
E. None of the above
ANS: D

576. Which of the following results are Win/Win conflict resolution?
A. compromising
B. forcing
C. problem solving
D. smoothly
E. withdraw
ANS: C

577. During the planning phase of a project, you realize that more than one functional department possesses the skill and technical know-how to
perform a given task. The best way for the project manager to handle this would be to:
A. Make the decision, document it in the linear responsibility chart, and distribute the chart to all departments.
B. Let the affected line groups decide among themselves who will perform the work
C. Ask the executive sponsor to make the decision
D. Allow each line group to perform part of the task
E. All of the above
ANS: B

578. The ability to achieve cost savings is inversely proportional to _____.
A. the earned value achieved to date
B. the estimated costs to complete
C. empowerment to the P.M.
D. productivity
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

579. The most effective team motivator is:
A. the visibility of the team’s contribution
B. the satisfaction of meeting a challenge
C. understanding the importance of the project
D. the individual’s professional challenge
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

580. Which of the following is based on an individual identification with a more powerful person.
A. expert power
B. reward power
C. referent power
D. A and B.
E. A and C
ANS: C

541. Which influence reflects an informal organization?
A. formal authority
B. reward power
C. referent power
D. expert power
E. penalty
ANS: C

542. A life cycle project manager tends to have the following characteristics:
A. balanced training
B. stronger administrative skills than technical skills
C. stronger technical skills than administrative skills
D. stronger human resource skills
E. None of the above.
ANS: B

543. In acceptance sampling, if the sample size is kept the same but the acceptance number is increased, which of the following will be true:
A. buyer’s risk will decrease
B. vendor’s risk will decrease
C. producer’s risk will decrease
D. consumer’s risk will increase
E. C and D only
ANS: E

544. Risks include the following types:
A. Business risk
B. pure risk
C. Insurable risk
D. A and B
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

545. Traits of a participative manager include:
A. being accessible
B. being an effective delegator
C. holding social gatherings
D. All of the above.
E. A and C
ANS: D

546. All of the following statements about acceptance sampling are true except:
A. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great.
B. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required.
C. Acceptance sampling plans are never effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is
very tedious.
D. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality.
E. Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-made products.
ANS: C

547. Interfacing with the customer after project go-ahead is the responsibility of:
A. Project sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Functional manager
E. All of the above are possible, based upon the size and complexity of the project
ANS: C

548. Parametric cost estimating involves
A. using the WBS to do bottom up estimates
B. defining the perimeters of the life-cycle
C. calculating the individual estimates of work packages
D. using a statistical model to estimate costs
E. A and C
ANS: D

549. Risk exposure refers to _____ .
A. the amount at stake.
B. what might happen.
C. the likelihood of something
D. who is going to be held accountable
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

550. The compromise conflict resolution technique
A. is necessary when both participants must win.
B. results in both sides losing
C. is used when resolution is more important than relationships
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: B

551. When a majority of team members must agree before a decision is reached _____.
A. some team members may become alienated
B. future group effectiveness may become damaged.
C. the PM may lose credibility
D. the project manager will most likely have to utilize a conflict resolution technique
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

552. You are managing an internal project where a vice president from the user group is acting as the sponsor. You have just been informed by
your team that the critical path has slipped by three weeks. You should:
A. Immediately inform the sponsor and ask for advice
B. Do nothing until the slippage occurs
C. See the sponsor after you have evaluated alternatives, recommendations, and performed an impact analysis
D. Look for someone to blame before you see the sponsor
E. Inform your senior management of the problem and tell them that you will get back to them after you assessed the situation
ANS: C

553. A quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from three to six. The size of the control band will:
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. not determinable from given data
E. None of the above.
ANS: B

554. Obtaining team commitment depends on:
A. clear and interesting job assignments
B. consensus on project goals
C. involvement in developing task objectives
D. All of the above.
E. B and C
ANS: E

555. Risk mitigation is the process of _____ .
A. transferring risk to another party.
B. reducing uncertainty on the project
C. identifying all possible risk events
D. monitoring status and making adjustments
E. All of the above.
ANS: B

556. The “rolling wave” or “moving window” concept is used most frequently on projects where:
A. The baseline is frozen for the duration of the project and no scope changes are permitted
B. Marketing is unsure of what the customer actually wants and reserves the right to make major scope changes
C. The low levels of the work breakdown structure are known with certainty for the next three to six months, but the remaining tasks are based
upon the results of the first three to six months of work
D. Networking techniques are not appropriate
E. All of the above
ANS: C

557. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) measures
A. total costs
B. performance over a period of time
C. costs at a point of time
D. variable costs
E. All of the above.
ANS: C

558. All of the following statements about control charts are true except:
A. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control
B. control charts are used to detemine acceptance limits when no limits are stipulated by the product specification; otherwise, one should use the
limits dictated by the specification.
C. all data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by assignable causes.
D. A and B.
E. B and C
ANS: E

559. As a control tool, the bar chart (Gantt) methods is most beneficial for:
A. rearranging conflicting tasks
B. depicting actual versus planned tasks
C. showing the outer dependencies of tasks
D. A and C.
E. A and D
ANS: B

560. Cost forecasting calculations include:
A. EAC = ACWP + (BAC – BCWP)
B. EAC = BAC/CPI
C. EAC = ACWP + (BAC/CPI)
D. All of the above.
E. A and B
ANS: E

521. Project management provides organizations with a methodology to:
A. Become more efficient and effective in accomplishing goals that cannot be handled well by the traditional structure
B. Manage high risk repetitive work
C. Provide clients with multiple points of contact
D. Provide guidance in accomplishing repetitive activities
E. All of the above
ANS: A

522. Random cause or system variation is:
A. generally present in every process
B. the responsibility of the inspection of the process
C. the responsibility of the workers of the process
D. the responsibility of management
E. A and D only
ANS: E

523. The most frequently used construct in Precedent Diagramming Method is:
A. Start to Start.
B. Finish to Finish.
C. Start to Finish.
D. Finish to Start.
E. Dummy activity.
ANS: D

524. The person sending a message is NOT influenced by which of the following
A. sender’s credibility
B. receiver’s assumptions
C. receiver’s evaluative and tendency
D. receiver’s attitude and needs
E. sender’s knowledge
ANS: C

525. A common mistake in communications is to _____ of the receiver.
A. overestimate the knowledge
B. underestimate the knowledge
C. underestimate the intelligence
D. overestimate the intelligence
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

526. A key to successful Management by Objectives (MBO) is
A. insuring that employees have clearly defined objectives
B. involving employees in decision meetings
C. permitting employees to set their own objectives
D. allowing employees to perform their own evaluations
E. A or C.
ANS: E

527. Sunk costs are:
A. future costs held in reserve.
B. costs invested in commodities.
C. expended costs over which we have no control.
D. expended costs over which we have no more control
E. tax credits
ANS: D

528. The degree to which a company accepts and utilizes project management is often dependent upon the _____ and _____ of the project.
A. Competition, dollar value
B. Type of industry, manpower requirements
C. Size, nature
D. Quality requirements, manpower requirement
E. Type of industry, risk
ANS: C

529. The specification for a particular part is 10″ + or – 0.015″. The standard associated process produces parts with a means of 10″ and standard
deviation of 0.002′. The process capability index is:
A. 0.002
B. 1.0
C. 2.5
D. 7.5
E. None of the above
ANS: C

530. Which of the following is indicative of negative float?
A. The late start date is earlier than the early start date.
B. The critical path supports the imposed end date.
C. The early finish date is equal to the late finish date.
D. When leads are employed in the schedule.
E. The project is sinking.
ANS: A

531. Line of balance charts are used most frequently in:
A. Engineering
B. Marketing
C. Manufacturing
D. Accounting
E. Contracts and procurement
ANS: C

532. Project tradeoffs are usually made by comparing _____ and constraints.
A. Time, cost, and quality
B. Time, risk, and quality
C. Risk, quality, and manpower availability
D. Cost, quality, and technical performance
E. Cost, quality, and risk
ANS: D

533. Standard “Shewhart” control charts assume that the distribution of sample means is:
A. uniform
B. normal
C. discrete
D. symmetrical
E. B and D only
ANS: E

534. The type of power most infrequently used by the PM is
A. formal authority
B. reward power
C. referent power
D. expert power
E. penalty
ANS: A

535. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of message filtering?
A. semantics
B. media
C. ethics
D. organizational status
E. reputation
ANS: C

536. Feasibility studies evaluate alternatives in terms of
A. Cost-effectiveness
B. Ease of performance
C. Risk
D. Safety
E. All or part of A through D
ANS: E

537. Present value measures
A. the value to us today of future cash flows.
B. the rate of return on an investment when we take account of cash inflows and outflows
C. the current estimates of our project budget
D. the dollars worth of work accomplished as of today
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

538. The Project Manager has the responsibility of knowing what kind of message to send because his _____ may avoid communications barriers.
A. business interfaces
B. output
C. technical experience
D. priorities
E. training methods
ANS: B

539. The ability to reduce risk is _____ to how far you have progressed through the project life cycle.
A. inversely proportional
B. directly proportional
C. not related
D. the responsibility of the risk executive
E. is directly proportional to the amount at stake.
ANS: A

540. The risk of accepting a lot of poor quality, in acceptance sampling, is referred to as:
A. buyer’s risk
B. consumer’s risk
C. producer’s risk
D. type I error
E. B and D only
ANS: B

501. Variables quality data are:
A. quantitative or qualitative data
B. quality data for which the product or service is designed and built
C. reflect measurements on a continuous scale of a characteristic of the produce or service.
D. Indicate management’s understanding of the concept of variability
E. B and C only
ANS: E

502. Five people are involved on a project that requires significant communication between all project participants. How many lines of
communication exist on this project?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 9
ANS: D

503. A project may be defined as _____
A. an integrated approach to managing projects
B. a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities.
C. a group of activities directed by a project manger over a life cycle
D. an undertaking with a defined starting point and defined objectives
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

504. Quality control charts show a characteristic of the product or service against:
A. the specification limits
B. customer requirements
C. control limits based on three standard deviations in each direction
D. control limits based on six standard deviations in each direction
E. A and D only
ANS: C

505. The performance review interview is a vital component of any personnel evaluation system. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an
effective personnel evaluation interview?
A. Performed by a supervisor who has adequately prepared for the interview
B. Discusses the employee’s future performance goals
C. Discusses the employee’s undesirable personality traits
D. Completed during a single, uninterrupted block of time
E. Focuses on a limited number of topics so that each topic can be discussed in detail
ANS: C

506. Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task?
A. Fast tracking.
B. Crashing
C. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start.
D. Alter to task priorities.
E. A or B
ANS: A

507. “Fast-tracked” projects awarded and begun before all planning and risk assessment information is complete and available may _____ .
A. be completed in reduced overall time than other projects.
B. be in a higher risk category than other projects.
C. not be compatible with project risk and assessment
D. A and B
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

508. 100 % inspection of output is:
A. the best proven method to ensure quality
B. is expensive, ineffective approach to quality management
C. can never be, justified
D. can still leave some defects undetected
E. B and D only
ANS: E

509. A summary WBS is usually developed in the
A. Conceptual phase
B. implementation phase
C. planning phase
D. close-out phase
E. All of the above phases
ANS: A

510. Management by objectives assumes that the team
A. is receptive to an unstructured environment.
B. does not require close supervision
C. possesses a self-fulfillment philosophy
D. all of the above
E. A and C
ANS: C

511. Achieving effective upward communications in an organization requires that the sender consider which of the following:
A. entropy
B. position
C. the medium
D. A and B.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

512. Configuration (baseline) control monitors performance against the
A. scope baseline
B. original schedule
C. original budget
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

513. Japanese resource management models exhibit.
A. a cooperative spirit of goal settings
B. non-specialized career paths
C. frequent changes on team assignments
D. A and B.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

514. Life Cycle Costing:
A. is the concept of including all costs within the total life of a project.
B. is an activity devoted to optimizing cost/performance
C. is an activity of appraising the cost and technical performance of a completed project.
D. is a process of predicting the life of a project.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

515. Risk management requires an understanding that _____ .
A. the degree of greatest uncertainty occurs in the Conceptual Phase of the Life Cycle.
B. risk identification must be directly aligned with the Work Breakdown Structure.
C. it is merely advanced preparation for possible adverse future events.
D. it does not imply complete control of events
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

516. The centerline of a standard “Shewhart’ control chart represents:
A. the process target
B. the nominal dimension specified by the customer
C. the nominal dimension specified by the designer
D. the true process average or mean
E. the process sample average or mean
ANS: E

517. The critical path is calculated by
A. subtracting the end date of task one from the start date of task two.
B. determining which tasks have the least amount of total slack.
C. totaling the time for all activities.
D. determining the shortest path through the network.
E. Determining which tasks have the most slack
ANS: B

518. Delegation may
A. defer the decision on type of approach to be used.
B. be interpreted as passive and uncaring
C. tend to emphasize the task over the people involved.
D. be frequently utilized by a project manager.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

519. Final risk quantification considers total risk impacts and _____ .
A. translates the impacts into economic terms for analysis.
B. concentrates on schedule impacts
C. may not consider safety and environmental impacts
D. A and B
E. A and C
ANS: E

520. Managerial Reserves are:
A. allowances to account for price changes that can occur over the life of a project.
B. incentive fees paid to managers for good performance.
C. funds used to offset poor cost or schedule estimates.
D. accounts to allocate and maintain funds for contingency programs
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

481. The formalization of management’s attitude toward risk is called _____ .
A. Decision Theory.
B. Utility Theory.
C. Decision Tree Analysis.
D. Sensitivity Analysis.
E. Probability Analysis.
ANS: B

482. The range of time allowed for an activity to be completed in is the _____.
A. Planned time (Duration).
B. Float time (LS – ES, or LF – EF).
C. Critical time (when ES = LS, or EF = LF).
D. Scheduled time (LF – ES).
E. Event.
ANS: D

483. When items to be purchased for a project are specified by performance characteristics:
A. paperwork is greatly reduced
B. the supplier is held liable for the operation of the item
C. the supplier is held liable for the maintenance of the item
D. the supplier is held liable for that the item meets the design, dimensions, and tolerance specifications.
E. B and D only
ANS: B

484. You have assembled your thoughts into a message. As you pass this information to a second party, you are giving this person your:
A. Input
B. Output
C. Data
D. Feedback
E. A and C
ANS: B

485. Deflection involves the transfer of risk by:
A. Contracting out to another party
B. Developing schedule alternative.
C. Establishing functions under the project manager to handle risk events.
D. Disaster planning and responses.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

486. Filling vacant positions by recruiting within the organization
A. Is exempt from equal employment opportunity laws
B. Is less expensive than recruiting externally
C. Can help provide new and innovative ideas to the organization
D. Is more time consuming than recruiting externally
E. A and B
ANS: B

487. The accounting head asks an assistant to cut the payroll checks today. The head later arrives to sign the checks, only to find that the
assistant shredded (cut) the blank check forms. Which phrase best describes this lack of communication.
A. Bypass instruction
B. Faulty perception of reality
C. Bad attitude of listener
D. Lazy listening
E. Emotionalism
ANS: A

488. Which of the following are among Phil Crosby’s “absolutes of quality’.
A. the performance of standard is zero defects
B. do everything right the first time, each time
C. constantly improve each product and each service
D. the measurement system is the cost of nonconformance
E. A and D only
ANS: E

489. Which of the following impacts the critical path?
A. Changing the task duration.
B. Reduce the free float of an activity.
C. Executing a backward pass
D. A or B
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

490. A(n) _____ is defined as a specified accomplishment in a particular instant in time which does not consume time or resources.
A. Activity
B. Event.
C. Correlation
D. Constant
E. Event constrained within planned effort.
ANS: B

491. According to labor law, which of the following management actions are prohibited during a union organizing drive?
A. Forbidding employees from distributing union literature in working areas
B. Implementing previously scheduled pay raises
C. Forbidding unions from soliciting workers during working hours
D. Circulating anti-union petitions
E. All of the above
ANS: D

492. All of the following statements define the role of a meeting chairperson except:
A. Initiates and concludes discussion
B. Controls irrelevant discussion
C. Resolves strong disagreements
D. Produces meeting agenda
E. Consolidates agreements.
ANS: D

493. Attributes quality data are:
A. quantitative or qualitative data
B. quality data for which the products or services is designed and built.
C. reflect measurements on a continuous scale of a characteristic of the product or service
D. indicate management’s understanding of the concept of variability
E. A and B only
ANS: E

494. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to:
A. See what mistakes others have made
B. See how others have solved problems
C. Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
ANS: D

495. Risk mitigation includes all but which of the following:
A. Developing system (policies, procedures, responsibilities)
B. Obtaining insurance against loss
C. performing contingent planning
D. developing planning alternatives
E. identification of project risks.
ANS: E

496. All the techniques described below can be used to keep a meeting focused except:
A. Recall agenda items/purpose of meeting
B. Summarize discussion periodically
C. Encourage pursuit of interesting new ideas
D. Rephrase unclear ideas presented by group members
E. All are acceptable techniques
ANS: C

497. Approval to proceed is normally made at the end of the _____ phase of a typical project.
A. conceptual
B. development
C. implementation
D. execution
E. close-out
ANS: A

498. Management by Objectives (MBO)
A. is a method used to evaluate personnel by objectively comparing them to common performance standards
B. requires a supervisor and a subordinate to jointly establish performance objectives
C. should be the responsibility of the organization’s personnel department
D. should always involve the establishment of objectives that are quantifiable
E. B and D
ANS: B

499. Project Risk _____ .
A. should not be calculated for small projects.
B. is the probability of each risk event minus the sum of the consequences of potential risk events.
C. is the cumulative effect of uncertain occurrences which will adversely affect project objectives.
D. cannot be quantified for first time projects.
E. B or D
ANS: C

500. Resource leveling _____.
A. Allocates resources to activities to find shortest schedule within fixed resource limits.
B. Smoothes out resource requirements by rescheduling activities within their float time.
C. Smooths out resource requirements by substituting activities with unassigned resources.
D. Attempts to reduce resource requirements within a constraint on project duration
E. B or D
ANS: E

461. Which of the following contract types has the highest risk to the contractor:
A. Firm fixed price (FFP)
B. Time and material (T&M)
C. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
D. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
E. A and B only
ANS: A

462. Work authorization forms are needed in order to:
A. Authorize line organizations to charge against the project
B. Establish an audit trail
C. Develop a structured methodology for release of funds
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
ANS: D

463. Your client, with which you have good relations, wants you to provide him with office supplies. This task is not supported under your contract.
You respond to your client’s informal request using which medium?
A. Speech
B. Written
C. Oral
D. A and C
E. Form letter
ANS: C

464. A project manager wants to transmit a complex message to several subordinates. What is the best medium by which the manager can get his
message across?
A. Oral
B. Written
C. Nonverbal
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C.
ANS: E

465. A technique that can be used to measure the total income of a project compared to the total moneys expended at any period of time is:
A. return on investment (ROI)
B. net present value (NPV)
C. discounted cash flow (DCF)
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

466. Range estimating in determining cost risk probabilities requires _____ .
A. an amount of financial exposure.
B. risks and opportunities ranked in order of bottom line importance
C. contingency requirements for expected level of confidence
D. probability of cost overrun occurrences
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

467. Satisfaction of the functional requirements of a product is called _____ .
A. usability
B. reliability
C. maintainability
D. producibility
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

468. The project charter is a document designed to tell _____ exactly what the project entails.
A. The project manager
B. The project office
C. The project team
D. The project sponsor
E. Anyone associated with the project
ANS: E

469. Which of the following control types has the highest risk to the owner:
A. Firm fixed price (FFP)
B. Time and material (T&M)
C. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
D. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
E. A and B only
ANS: B

470. Which of the following statements is in agreement with McGregor’s concepts concerning Theory X and Theory Y managers?
A. Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change
B. Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept responsibility
C. Theory X managers tend to be autocratic whereas Theory Y managers are more likely to delegate responsibility
D. A and B.
E. All of the above
ANS: E

471. Ensuring that all work is both authorized and funded by contractual documentation is the responsibility of:
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager
C. The project sponsor
D. The client
E. All of the above
ANS: A

472. Forecasting human resource requirements necessitates making predictions about both the supply and demand of human resources. Which of
the following is not a method used to forecast the demand for human resources?
A. Delphi Method
B. Regression Analysis
C. PERT Charts
D. Staffing Tables
E. Time Series Analysis
ANS: C

473. Free float is the amount of time that an activity may be delayed with out affecting the _____.
A. Early start of the succeeding activities.
B. Late start of the succeeding activities.
C. Project finish.
D. Cost of the project.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

474. Risks that cannot be identified or evaluated _____ .
A. should be deflected to the contracting officer.
B. should be handled via contingency allowances.
C. should be ignored, since they cannot be identified.
D. should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Risk Assessment.
E. C and D
ANS: B

475. The five major cost categories of quality are _____ .
A. prevention, appraisal, internal failures, external failures, and equipment (measurement and test).
B. specifications, QA programs, QC programs, parts rejected and parts returned
C. Staffing, Training, reviews, equipment and rejected goods
D. sampling, design considerations, manufacturing considerations, training and rework.
E. None of the above
ANS: A

476. The process of interpreting a message is:
A. Decoding
B. Receiving
C. Encoding
D. Feedback
E. A and C
ANS: A

477. Which of the following is a formal invitation that requests a formal response that describes the method of work and associated compensation.
A. Request for quotation (RFQ)
B. Request for proposal (RFP)
C. Request for bids (RFB)
D. Invitation for bids (IFB)
E. Letter of intent (LOI)
ANS: B

478. A program can best be described as:
A. A grouping of related activities which last two years or more
B. The first major subdivision of a project
C. A grouping of projects, similar in nature, which support a product or product line and have no definable end point
D. A product line
E. Another name for a project
ANS: C

479. Cost of quality includes:
A. Appraisal cost
B. detection cost
C. prevention cost
D. maintenance cost
E. A, B, and C only
ANS: E

480. Flextime and compressed workweeks are two popular alternative work schedules used by employers to improve the quality of work life of
their employers. Which of the following statements concerning these alternative work schedules is not true?
A. Flextime schedules alter the employee’s working hours but not the number of hours worked each day
B. Both flextime and compressed workweek schedules make scheduling more complex for the employer
C. Both flextime and compressed workweek schedules can complicate compliance with overtime regulations
D. Fatigue is a disadvantage of compressed workweek schedules because employees must work longer than the traditional eight hour work day
E. Under flextime schedules, the working hours are established by the employer
ANS: E

441. The schedule risk is the _____ .
A. the accumulated “expected’ durations which maintain project completion.
B. Critical Path adjusted by “high-risk” activity float.
C. highest risk path that maintains quality.
D. Critical Path when calculated with “most likely” duration.
E. highest risk path that contributes the most risk toward the project completion.
ANS: B

442. Screening of risk events for potential risk is known as _____ .
A. problem structuring.
B. risk identification
C. risk quantification
D. risk modeling
E. risk mitigation
ANS: B

443. The Cost Performance Index is computed as:
A. budget cost of work performed divided by actual cost of work performed
B. budget cost of work performed minus actual cost of work performed
C. budget cost of work performed minus budget cost of work scheduled
D. budget cost of work scheduled divided by budget cost of work performed
E. actual cost of work scheduled divided by budget cost of work performed
ANS: A

444. Typical characteristics of a work package include:
A. Representation of units of work at a level where work is performed
B. Clearly distinguishes one work package from all others assigned to a single functional group
C. Limits the work to be performed to relatively short periods of time
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
ANS: E

445. Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance?
A. maintenance and calibration
B. warranty repairs
C. scrap
D. rework
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

446. Which of the following is not a method of government procurement.
A. Assistance
B. sealed bidding
C. competitive proposals
D. acquisition
E. small purchases
ANS: D

447. Which of the following would most likely not be an essential objective of a project team kick-off meeting
A. Create a project technology master plan
B. Get team members to know one another
C. Identify project problem areas
D. Obtain individual and group commitments
E. Identify the project coordinator
ANS: A

448. You are in a meeting with someone who just ate a slice of garlic bread. Your are distracted by his pungent breath. Which of the following
communication barriers describe these distractions?
A. Sign Detection
B. Sensory Limitations
C. Selective Perception
D. Varying Alertness of Perception
E. None of the above
ANS: A

449. Arbitration is a _____ approach to conflict management in resolving conflict disputes.
A. lose-lose
B. win-win
C. win-lose
D. lose-win
E. closed door
ANS: A

450. As project manager, you wish to impose a standard method by which subordinates calculate project costs. Which level of communication
should be required for this effort?
A. Face-to-face
B. Telephone
C. Written
D. Non-verbal
E. All of the above should be required.
ANS: C

451. In general, groups will ____ the average individual problem solver on problems with multiple stages.
A. Perform better than
B. Perform worse than
C. Take less time than
D. Do about as well as
E.
ANS: A
452. The scope baseline/project charter is prepared by the:
A. Project manager
B. Project manager and project office
C. Project manager, project office and functional team
D. Project manager, project office, functional team and project sponsor
E. Project manager, project sponsor and customer/user
ANS: E

453. Warranty cost is an example of an _____ .
A. internal failure cost
B. appraisal cost
C. external failure cost
D. customer satisfaction cost
E. All of the above.
ANS: C

454. Which of the following does not contribute to increased Schedule Risk?
A. labor shortage
B. contractor claims
C. lack of access
D. sponsor scope changes
E. all may increase schedule risk
ANS: E

455. Which of the following is considered a method of accelerated depreciation:
A. sum-of-the-years digit
B. straight-line
C. double-declining-balance
D. A and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

456. Cost management includes processes that are required to maintain financial control of projects. These processes may include:
A. economic evaluation
B. cost estimating
C. cost forecasting
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

457. In crashing a task, you would focus on:
A. As many tasks as possible.
B. Non critical tasks.
C. Accelerating performance of tasks on critical path.
D. Accelerate performance by minimizing cost.
E. A and D.
ANS: C

458. Inspection processes are considered _____.
A. an investment in the future
B. an effective corrective process
C. a necessary control process
D. insults to production line employees
E. None of the above.
ANS: C

459. Standard deviation of project completion is _____ .
A. a relationship of the uncertainty of critical path activities.
B. an indicator of project end date target confidence
C. a function of critical path, leveling and project costs.
D. A and B
E. All of the above.
ANS: D

460. The project team form of organization confers both advantages and disadvantages. Disadvantages of the project form include:
A. Conflict in authority between project manager and functional managers
B. Dual allegiance on part of team members
C. Complex prioritization of resources
D. Loss of developed procedures on project dissolution
E. All of the above
ANS: E

421. Project life cycles provide a better means of measurement of progress and control. The four phases of a project are conceptual development,
_____, _____, and _____.
A. Preliminary planning, detail planning, closeout
B. Implementation, reporting, termination
C. Development, implementation, termination
D. Execution, reporting, finishing
E. Implementation, termination, post-audit review
ANS: C

422. Response Planning is the responsibility of the functional areas and considers
A. mitigation.
B. deflection.
C. contingency planning.
D. unforeseen occurrences.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

423. The definitive terms of a contract are written during which of the following contract phases?
A. Contract Phase
B. Post-Award Phase
C. Award Phase
D. Pre-Award Phase
E. Requirement Phase
ANS: C

424. The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of
A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Interacting
D. Promoting
E. Interfacing
ANS: B

425. Which of the following types of cost are relevant to making financial decisions:
A. sunk cost
B. opportunity cost
C. material cost
D. A and C only
E. B and C only
ANS: E

426. In preparing a good project definition, experienced project managers will:
A. Concentrate mainly on the end product rather than costs or benefits. These come later.
B. Realize that only the “tip of the iceberg” may be showing. As a project manager, you must get beneath it.
C. Understand that a project definition/plan is a dynamic rather than static tool, and thus subject to change.
D. Try to convert objectives into quantifiable terms.
E. All of the above
ANS: E

427. In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?
A. Firm Fixed Price Contract
B. Fixed Price Plus Incentive
C. Cost Plus Fixed Price
D. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
E. A and B
ANS: D

428. Management of a certain building was receiving complaints about slow elevator service. The solution adopted was to add mirrors in the
lobbies to reduce boredom while passengers waited. This is an example of _____ .
A. Kepner-Tregoe method
B. Potential problem analysis
C. Decision analysis
D. Creative problem solving
E. None of the above
ANS: D

429. Pure Risk differs from Business Risks because Pure Risk’s _____ .
A. include chances of both profit or loss associated with the business.
B. include chances of loss and no chances for profit associated with the business.
C. must incur personal loss with business liability.
D. must incur business liability associated with loss of pure profit.
E. B and C
ANS: B

430. The actual configuration of a PERT/CPM network _____ the amount of resources that can be devoted to the project.
A. Increases.
B. Is not affected by
C. Does not require
D. Is heavily dependent upon
E. Is the only means of determining
ANS: D

431. The following types of costs are relevant to making a financial decision except:
A. opportunity costs
B. direct costs
C. sunk cost
D. unavoidable costs
E. None of the above
ANS: C

432. The standard types of communication include all but
A. Written
B. Verbal
C. Telepathic
D. Nonverbal
E. None of the above
ANS: C

433. _____ of the extra costs of the project can often be attributed to a lack of quality.
A. 0.12
B. 0.15
C. 0.2
D. 0.25
E. less than 10%
ANS: C

434. A budget estimate should give the manager cost data accurate to within:
A. -5 to +10 percent of actual cost
B. -25 to +75 percent of actual cost
C. -30 to +75 percent of actual cost
D. -10 to +25 percent of actual cost
E. None of the above
ANS: D

435. All of the following are categories of a milestone in a schedule except:
A. End date.
B. Contract dates.
C. Key events scheduled.
D. Imposed dates.
E. Task duration.
ANS: E

436. How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating (formal and informal)?
A. 40% – 60%
B. 30% – 70%
C. 60% – 80%
D. 75% – 90%
E. 25% – 55 %
ANS: D

437. In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrixed
D. Project expediter
E. Project coordinator
ANS: C

438. Problems can occur in properly defining a project because:
A. Project goals may not be agreeable to all parties
B. The plan was “too loose,” thus allowing priorities to change
C. Low turnover of project personnel
D. Too much communication between the client and project personnel
E. The project objectives were quantified
ANS: A

439. The cost of a quality program should be budgeted at _____ of the total project.
A. 10-12%
B. 2-3 %
C. 6-8%
D. 3-5%
E. more than 15 %
ANS: D

440. The review for the specification completeness is performed during which of the following cycles.
A. Award cycles
B. requirements cycle
C. requisition cycle
D. solicitation cycle
E. contractual cycle
ANS: C

401. Which of the following is referred to as payback period:
A. the number of periods required to recover the initial investment
B. the rate of return on the investment
C. the number of periods required to bring project cost back to the original budget, based on current performance
D. loan payment schedule
E. None of the above
ANS: A

402. Which one of the following is not an acquisition method?
A. advertising
B. invitation
C. negotiation
D. purchase
E. all are acquisition methods
ANS: A

403. At least _____of the cost of quality are the direct responsibility of management.
A. 0.25
B. 0.85
C. 0.5
D. 1
E. 0.33
ANS: B

404. Fast tracking means to:
A. Speed up a project through parallel tasks.
B. Swap one task for another.
C. Reduce the number of tasks if possible.
D. B and C.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A

405. Formal written correspondence is mandated in which of the following situations:
A. Product undergoes casual in-house testing
B. Client requests additional work not covered under contract
C. Project manager calls a meeting
D. B and C only
E. None of the above
ANS: B

406. The Delphi Method is _____ .
A. used to derive a consensus arriving at a convergent solution
B. useful in determining probability relating to future events.
C. used with questionnaires based on established scenarios.
D. continued as an iterative process until a solution is reached.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

407. The positive value of conflict is underestimated. Properly managed, conflict is a valuable tool, particularly when
A. A diversion is needed
B. Conflictive situations are in their early stages and emotional involvement is low
C. Conflictive situations are in their late stages and emotional involvement is high
D. Conflict may cause a loss of status or position power
E.
ANS: B

408. Under the terms of 2/10 net 30, the buyer may:
A. deduct 10% of the invoice amount for payment within 30 days
B. deduct 2% of the invoice for payment within 10 days
C. incurs a penalty on 10% for payments more than 30 days late
D. settle the invoice with 2 equal payments; one within 10 days and the other within 30 days
E. None of the above
ANS: B

409. Which of the following can result in misinterpretation of the statement of work?
A. Using imprecise language (ie nearly, approximately)
B. Mixing tasks, specifications, special instructions and approvals
C. No pattern, structure or chronological order
D. Wide variation in the size of tasks or details of work
E. All of the above
ANS: E

410. Amount at Stake is the _____ .
A. function of planned time/real time project costs.
B. risk identified in successful project completions.
C. (Standard Project Deviation + Expected Costs)/6
D. cost of investment loss + least cost to restore status quo.
E. inherent risk at conception altered by standard project deviations.
ANS: D

411. In communications management, to assimilate through the mind or senses (as in new ideas) is the process of
A. Understanding
B. Communicating
C. Receiving
D. Decoding
E. Comprehending
ANS: C

412. In general, the best long-lasting approach to settling project conflict is the _____ approach .
A. Problem solving
B. Compromise
C. Withdrawal
D. Smoothing
E. Forcing
ANS: A

413. In which of the following cost estimating techniques are statistics models used:
A. nonparametric cost estimating
B. parametric cost estimating
C. life cycle cost estimating
D. bottom-up estimating
E. All of the above.
ANS: B

414. The _____ specification delineates specific end use capabilities which can be tested in the acceptance procedure.
A. performance
B. functional
C. technical
D. base line
E. operational
ANS: B

415. The contractual statement of work (CSOW)
A. Must be the same as the proposal statement of work
B. Does not identify reporting requirements
C. Can be at a different level of detail (ie WBS level) than the proposal statement of work
D. Identifies the contractor’s organizational structure for the project
E. All of the above
ANS: C

416. The key ingredient to a successful quality management program are _____.
A. management’s quality philosophy, operational quality assurance and operational quality control.
B. quality evaluation methods and functional quality integrators.
C. technical quality administration, the technical quality specifications, and the quality process review.
D. quality evaluation methods, quality progress reviews and the technical quality specifications.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A

417. The key purpose of project control is to:
A. Plan ahead for uncertainties.
B. Generate status reports.
C. Keep the project on track.
D. Develop the project road map.
E. All of the above.
ANS: C

418. CIP embodies which of the following principals?
A. constancy of purpose
B. customer focus and involvement
C. total involvement
D. teamwork
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

419. Excessive flexibility in specifying requirements will _____ the likelihood of time overruns.
A. Reduce.
B. Eliminate.
C. Double
D. Increase
E. Not affect
ANS: D

420. Listening involves more than hearing sounds. The good listener
A. Repeats some of the things said
B. Finishes the speaker’s sentences
C. Writes everything down
D. Nods his head frequently
E.
ANS: A

381. On November 1, 00 worth of work on task A was supposed to have been done (BCWS); however, the BCWP was 0. Calculate the
schedule variance:
A. -100
B. 100
C. -150
D. 150
E. 0.85
ANS: C

382. The Quality Risk _____ .
A. is minimized through continuous monitoring.
B. is considered a long term risk.
C. will be reflected in the in-service life of the project result.
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E

383. The act of conducting or supervising the exchange of information is:
A. Consulting
B. Project Management
C. Communications Management
D. Communications Enhancement
E. None of the above
ANS: C

384. The core function of the project manager is
A. Systems design
B. Client interfacing
C. Quality assurance
D. integration
E.
ANS: D

385. The future value of an annual income flow of 00 for 2 years at 10% is:
A. 2200
B. 2280
C. 2300
D. 2310
E. None of the above
ANS: D

386. The initial cost of a product and the product’s operation and maintenance costs _____ .
A. increases perceived value when balanced.
B. are incidental to each other because initial costs are “sunk”
C. decreases design costs as operation periods increase
D. provides perceived function value and product social dysfunction
E. are integrally related with each other because initial costs are “sunk”.
ANS: A

387. All of the following may hinder a person’s ability to transmit/receive a message except:
A. Unfamiliarity with topic
B. Withholding information
C. Assuming
D. Noise
E. Preoccupation
ANS: A

388. Quality Improvement Programs are normally associated with which two of the following?
A. Juran and Crosby
B. Juran and Deming
C. Crosby and Deming
D. Deming and the Japanese
E. Crosby and the Japanese
ANS: D

389. The Utility Theory _____ .
A. considers risk propensity of the decision maker.
B. attempts to formalize management’s risk considerations.
C. works well with decision tree analysis.
D. is considered highly theoretical.
E. All of the above.
ANS: B

390. The document authorizing functional areas to charge against the project is the:
A. Work authorization form
B. Scope baseline
C. Project charter
D. Management plan
E. Linear responsibility chart
ANS: A

391. The purpose of a dummy activity in an activity-on-arrow diagram is to:
A. Identify a task that could be replaced by another.
B. Take the slack time into account.
C. Show a task that is not necessarily needed.
D. Denote a milestone.
E. Show a dependency relationship.
ANS: E

392. When planning, organizing, coordinating, and controlling a project an important human resources skill or ability would be
A. Building multi-disciplinary teams
B. Managing conflict
C. Communicating orally and in writing with all levels of personnel
D. Involving senior management
E. All are important
ANS: E

393. Which is not a negotiation tactic?
A. Imposing deadlines
B. surprises
C. person with authority is absent
D. reasoning together
E. all are negotiations tactics
ANS: E

394. Which of the following is referred to as sunk cost:
A. management reserve
B. contingency fund
C. cost budgeted for construction under water
D. expended funds over which there is no further control
E. forecasted budget over-runs
ANS: D

395. A project manager believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value for the customer. The project manager should:
A. Change the scope baseline
B. Prepare a variance report
C. Call a meeting of the configuration control board
D. Change the project’s objectives
E. Postpone the modification until a separate enhancement project is funded after this project is completed according to the original baseline
ANS: E

396. As a project is carried out and slack time is consumed on individual tasks, the slack left over for the remaining tasks is:
A. Insignificant.
B. Reduced.
C. Unchanged.
D. Increased.
E. Doubled.
ANS: C

397. Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except:
A. Team building
B. Uninhibited verbalization
C. Decision making
D. Analysis of alternatives
E. Convergent thinking
ANS: E

398. Non-conformance penalties are a form of _____.
A. quality incentive
B. risk sharing
C. contract negotiations
D. quality assurance programs
E. None of the above.
ANS: C

399. Risk Event Status is defined as _____ .
A. Risk Probability x Amount At Stake.
B. the severity of the consequences.
C. how likely the event is to occur with risk.
D. (Cost + Benefit + Business Risk) / Insurable Risk.
E. B and C
ANS: A

400. There are hard causes of conflict (eg conflicting schedules) and soft causes. Soft causes are as important as hard causes. Soft causes
include diversity of disciplinary expertise, _____, and the project manager’s power of reward and punishment.
A. Performance tradeoffs
B. Ambiguity of roles
C. Administrative procedures
D. Determining earned value
E.
ANS: B